Practice questions · explained
Private pilot practice questions, explained
All 477 original practice questions from the free course — each with the correct answer, why it's correct, and the FAA source behind it. Want them graded and tracked against your mastery? Run a practice session.
Becoming a Private Pilot
- What is the minimum age to be eligible for a private pilot certificate in an airplane?
- Which of the following is an eligibility requirement for a private pilot certificate?
- Which statement about student pilot privileges is correct?
- What is a distinguishing feature of exercising sport pilot privileges compared with private pilot privileges?
- What class of medical certificate is generally required to exercise private pilot privileges?
- Which is a requirement to operate under BasicMed?
- What is the purpose of an instructor endorsement in a pilot’s logbook?
- What is the minimum total flight time required for a private pilot airplane single-engine rating?
- What is the minimum passing score on the private pilot aeronautical knowledge test?
- Against what standard is the private pilot practical test evaluated?
- Which activity is permitted for a private pilot?
Regulatory Framework and Pilot Responsibilities
- Under 14 CFR 91.3, who is directly responsible for and the final authority as to the operation of an aircraft?
- To what extent may a pilot in command deviate from the rules during an in-flight emergency?
- After deviating from a rule under emergency authority, when must the pilot send a written report?
- What does 14 CFR 91.13 prohibit?
- Which items must a private pilot have available when acting as pilot in command?
- In the ARROW mnemonic for required aircraft documents, which item is required only for international operations?
- For a cross-country flight not in the vicinity of an airport, what must preflight action include under 91.103?
- During which phases must each occupant keep their safety belt fastened?
- Which aircraft has the right of way over all other air traffic?
- Two airplanes of the same category are converging at the same altitude. Which one has the right of way?
- Under 14 CFR 91.15, when may an object be dropped from an aircraft in flight?
Aerodynamics and Principles of Flight
- In steady, straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight, which relationship between the forces is true?
- Angle of attack is best described as the angle between which two references?
- A wing stalls when it exceeds what?
- Which statement about stalls is correct?
- Approximately what load factor is imposed in a 60-degree-bank level turn?
- How does increasing load factor affect stall speed?
- How does a forward center of gravity generally affect longitudinal stability?
- What is the primary aerodynamic effect of flying within about one wingspan of the ground?
- Adverse yaw causes the nose to move in which direction as the airplane rolls into a turn?
- P-factor is most pronounced under which condition?
- Which statement about induced drag is correct?
- Which flight control moves the airplane about its longitudinal axis?
Aircraft Structure, Systems and Powerplants
- Which control surface on the empennage controls the airplane’s pitch?
- What is the correct order of the strokes in a four-stroke reciprocating engine?
- During the run-up magneto check, what indication is normal when switching from BOTH to a single magneto?
- Why can a piston aircraft engine continue running even if the battery is dead?
- Compared with a carbureted engine, a fuel-injected engine is generally:
- Under which conditions is carburetor ice most likely to form?
- What is one effect of applying carburetor heat?
- Why must a pilot lean the mixture as the airplane climbs to higher altitude?
- Besides lubrication, which is a function of the engine oil system?
- What color is aviation gasoline grade 100LL?
- If the alternator fails in flight, what is the appropriate pilot action?
- On an airplane with a constant-speed propeller, which control sets manifold pressure and which sets RPM?
- Which condition is most likely to cause detonation?
- How does preignition differ from detonation?
Flight Instruments and Avionics
- If the pitot tube’s ram inlet becomes blocked but its drain hole remains open, what happens to the airspeed indicator?
- A blocked static port affects which instruments?
- If a pilot flies from a high-pressure area into a low-pressure area without resetting the altimeter, the altimeter will:
- What does the vertical speed indicator display?
- Which instrument displays both pitch and bank against an artificial horizon?
- Why must the heading indicator be reset periodically to the magnetic compass?
- Using the UNOS rule, what happens to the magnetic compass when rolling out onto a northerly heading?
- On an easterly heading, accelerating the aircraft causes the magnetic compass to momentarily indicate a turn toward which direction?
- What does a primary flight display (PFD) in a glass cockpit present?
- What transponder code should a pilot squawk for normal VFR operations when not assigned another code?
- What does a Mode C transponder provide that Mode A does not?
- What does area navigation (RNAV) allow an aircraft to do?
- What two instruments does a horizontal situation indicator (HSI) combine into one display?
- Refer to Figure 4. The upper limit of the WHITE arc on the airspeed indicator represents which airspeed?
Weight, Balance and Aircraft Performance
- What does the empty weight of an airplane include?
- How is useful load determined?
- An item weighs 200 pounds and sits at an arm of 60 inches. What is its moment?
- How is the center of gravity of a loaded airplane calculated?
- What is one effect of loading an airplane with a more forward center of gravity?
- Why is an excessively aft center of gravity considered especially hazardous?
- An airplane is loaded below its maximum gross weight but its CG is 2 inches aft of the aft limit. Is the loading legal?
- Density altitude is best defined as which of the following?
- How does high humidity affect aircraft performance?
- Which condition will lengthen the takeoff distance required?
- When a performance chart value falls between two printed lines, what should the pilot do?
- Approximately what load factor acts on an airplane in a level 60-degree banked turn?
Airports, Runways, Signs, Markings and Lighting
- A runway is marked "27". What does this number represent?
- What are the two broad white rectangles located about 1,000 feet down the runway?
- A runway holding position marking has two solid and two dashed yellow lines. On which side does an aircraft hold short?
- What color scheme identifies a mandatory instruction sign, such as a runway holding position sign?
- A sign with yellow text on a black background tells the pilot what?
- A rotating beacon alternating white and green indicates what type of airport?
- At a tower-controlled airport, a rotating beacon operating during daylight hours signals what?
- What color are taxiway edge lights?
- On a two-bar VASI, what does "red over red" indicate?
- A PAPI shows three white lights and one red light. What does this indicate?
- At a non-towered airport, how do pilots coordinate with one another?
- When may a pilot accept a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
- Refer to Figure 65. Illustration A — a white "4-22" inscription on a red background — is what type of airport sign?
- Refer to Figure 65. Illustration L — a black sign with a single white numeral "4" — indicates what?
- Refer to Figure 47. Which VASI illustration shows the aircraft ON the glidepath?
Airspace and Operating Requirements
- What is required before entering Class B airspace?
- Which equipment/communication combination is required to operate in Class C airspace?
- What must a VFR pilot do before entering Class D airspace?
- Class A airspace generally begins at which altitude?
- What are the basic VFR weather minimums in Class B airspace?
- In Class D airspace below 10,000 feet MSL, what cloud clearance is required?
- Which statement about Class G airspace is correct?
- What is the maximum indicated airspeed below 10,000 feet MSL?
- What should a VFR pilot do about a restricted area along the route?
- Near an airport with instrument approaches, Class E airspace commonly begins at what altitude?
- A pilot establishes two-way radio communication but receives no explicit clearance. Which airspace may they NOT enter?
- During the day below 1,200 feet AGL in Class G airspace, what is the minimum flight visibility?
- What are the minimum requirements to operate under a Special VFR clearance in controlled airspace during the day?
Communications and Air Traffic Control
- What is the phonetic word for the letter "R"?
- What is the correct order of information in a standard initial callup to ATC?
- What is the CTAF used for?
- Which ATC instruction must always be read back?
- What transponder code should a VFR aircraft squawk when not assigned a discrete code?
- What does transponder code 7500 indicate?
- A pilot experiencing a two-way radio failure should squawk which code?
- Which transponder code indicates a general in-flight emergency?
- Which statement about VFR flight following is correct?
- A steady green light gun signal directed at an aircraft in flight means what?
- A flashing red light gun signal to an aircraft in flight means what?
- A VFR pilot loses two-way radio communication approaching a towered airport. What should the pilot do?
Weather Theory
- Which conditions are characteristic of unstable air?
- A small spread between temperature and dewpoint most directly indicates the possibility of what?
- What weather is typically associated with the passage of a fast-moving cold front?
- How does an occluded front form?
- In a METAR, the group "A2992" represents what?
- Which METAR sky-cover code, at the lowest layer, establishes a ceiling?
- What is the key difference between a TAF and a METAR?
- In a TAF, which change group indicates temporary fluctuations expected to last less than an hour at a time?
- In the Northern Hemisphere, how does surface wind circulate around a low-pressure system?
- Which stage of a thunderstorm is the most hazardous, marked by both updrafts and downdrafts?
- Which two conditions must exist at the same time for structural icing to occur?
- How do high temperature, high elevation, and high humidity affect aircraft performance?
Aviation Weather Products and Interpretation
- In a METAR, the wind group "24016G24KT" means what?
- In the METAR group "24/18", what do the numbers represent?
- A TAF forecasts conditions for approximately what area around an airport?
- Which TAF change group indicates temporary fluctuations expected to last less than an hour at a time?
- Why is a PIREP a uniquely valuable weather product?
- What is the main difference between an AIRMET and a SIGMET?
- A convective SIGMET specifically warns of what?
- A winds aloft forecast shows "2416". What does this indicate?
- On a surface analysis chart, what do closely spaced isobars indicate?
- What does weather radar imagery primarily depict?
- Which briefing type should a pilot request for a flight departing in about one hour with no prior weather information?
- Why should a pilot use an official source such as Flight Service or an approved EFB for preflight weather?
- Refer to Figure 12. In the KJFK report (SPECI KJFK 121853Z 18004KT 1/2SM FG R04/2200 OVC005 20/18 A3006), what are the wind and visibility?
- Refer to Figure 15. The KMEM TAF includes "PROB40 1220/1222 1SM TSRA OVC008CB". What does this mean?
- Refer to Figure 17. For STL, the winds and temperatures aloft forecast at 12,000 feet is "2339-04". Decode it.
Navigation and Sectional Charts
- Pilotage is best described as navigation by what means?
- Which inputs does dead reckoning use to predict position?
- A VOR transmits radials measured in what reference?
- What happens to a VOR course deviation indication if the pilot changes the aircraft heading but not its position?
- What is magnetic variation?
- Compass deviation is caused by what, and corrected using what?
- What information does the data block next to an airport on a sectional chart typically provide?
- Lines of latitude have which characteristic?
- Why does a pilot apply a wind correction angle?
- What capability does GPS-based area navigation (RNAV) provide?
- At a groundspeed of 120 knots, approximately how long does it take to fly a 60-nautical-mile leg?
- The mnemonic ANDS describes magnetic compass errors during what?
- What distance does distance measuring equipment (DME) display?
- Refer to Figure 58. To fly a magnetic heading of 120°, what heading should the pilot steer by the magnetic compass?
- Refer to Figure 20. What class of airspace surrounds Norfolk International (ORF), shown by the concentric solid magenta rings labeled with altitudes such as 40/SFC and 40/12?
Cross-Country Flight Planning
- What makes a good visual checkpoint for a VFR cross-country?
- Which statement best distinguishes pilotage from dead reckoning?
- Converting true heading to magnetic heading requires applying which correction?
- Compass deviation is corrected using what source?
- Why must a pilot apply a wind correction angle on a cross-country leg?
- How does a headwind component affect groundspeed?
- At a groundspeed of 120 knots, how long does a 60-nautical-mile leg take?
- What is the minimum VFR fuel reserve for a daytime flight?
- How does the VFR fuel reserve at night differ from the daytime requirement?
- Which statement about a VFR flight plan is correct?
- Why should a pilot plan a cross-country using a current sectional chart?
- When a diversion becomes necessary, what should the pilot generally do first?
- A pilot who is unsure of position and cannot re-establish it should follow which memory aid?
Federal Aviation Regulations
- To carry passengers during the day, a pilot must have made how many takeoffs and landings in the preceding 90 days?
- In the ARROW mnemonic for required aircraft documents, what does the second "R" represent?
- Which statement best describes BasicMed?
- For a pilot age 40 or older, how long is a third-class medical certificate valid for private privileges?
- Two airplanes are converging at the same altitude. Which one has the right of way?
- When two aircraft approach head-on, what should each pilot do?
- Which item is part of the day-VFR minimum equipment list?
- For a cross-country flight not in the vicinity of an airport, which information must preflight action include?
- What is the minimum time that must elapse between consuming alcohol and acting as a crewmember?
- A rated private pilot receiving instruction is the sole manipulator of the controls. What time may they log?
- During an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, what authority does the pilot in command have?
- How may a private pilot share the cost of a flight with passengers?
- Which airplane is defined as "high-performance" and requires a one-time endorsement before acting as pilot in command?
Aeromedical Factors
- Which form of hypoxia is most common during unpressurized flight at altitude?
- Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous to a pilot?
- A pilot has tingling and lightheadedness that could be hyperventilation or hypoxia. What is the safest response?
- A pilot notices a headache and the smell of exhaust with the cabin heater on. What is the best immediate action?
- The best way to overcome spatial disorientation is to do what?
- Motion sickness is primarily caused by what?
- When is an ear or sinus block most likely, and how is it best prevented?
- To see a dim object best at night, a pilot should do what?
- Under the regulations, a pilot may not act as a crewmember within how long after consuming alcohol?
- How does fatigue most directly affect a pilot?
- What does the IMSAFE checklist assess?
- Why should a pilot wait before flying to altitude after scuba diving?
Aeronautical Decision-Making and Risk Management
- What best describes aeronautical decision-making (ADM)?
- What is the antidote to the "macho" hazardous attitude?
- A pilot who resents rules and thinks "don’t tell me what to do" is exhibiting which hazardous attitude?
- In the PAVE checklist, what does the "V" represent?
- A passenger urging a pilot to depart into marginal weather to make an appointment falls under which PAVE category?
- What are the 5 Ps used to re-evaluate risk during a flight?
- What does the "D" that begins the DECIDE model stand for?
- A risk-assessment matrix evaluates a hazard by combining which two factors?
- What is the primary defense against get-there-itis?
- Single-pilot resource management (SRM) is best described as what?
- A pilot notices tasks piling up faster than they can be handled during approach. This condition is called what?
- Which factor most commonly causes a loss of situational awareness?
Abnormal and Emergency Considerations
- The engine fails at low altitude just after takeoff. What is generally the correct response?
- When the engine fails at cruise altitude, what should the pilot do first?
- What does best glide airspeed provide?
- When selecting a field for a forced landing, which factor should the pilot consider?
- An engine restart flow after a power loss typically checks which items?
- What is the general principle for responding to an in-flight engine fire?
- The pilot smells burning insulation and suspects an electrical fire. What is the general response?
- An emergency descent is flown how?
- The engine runs rough with partial power loss. Which is an appropriate troubleshooting step while planning for a landing?
- A blocked pitot tube (with the drain also blocked) causes the airspeed indicator to behave like what other instrument?
- How does a modern 406 MHz ELT improve on the older 121.5 MHz type?
- After an off-airport landing, what should the pilot do to reduce the risk of fire?
Night Operations
- Which retinal receptors are primarily responsible for vision in low light at night?
- To best see a dim object at night, a pilot should do what?
- Approximately how long does it take the eyes to fully adapt to darkness?
- You see another aircraft at night showing its red light on your left and green light on your right. What is it doing?
- During what period must aircraft position lights be displayed?
- When may a pilot turn off an operating anti-collision light system?
- The black-hole approach illusion most typically causes a pilot to do what?
- A rotating beacon alternating white and green flashes indicates what kind of airport at night?
- On a pilot-controlled lighting system, how many microphone clicks select the highest light intensity?
- To carry passengers at night, what recent experience must a pilot have?
- Following an engine failure at night, what is an appropriate initial course of action?
- Which item is an important addition to a preflight specifically for night flight?
Preflight Planning and Required Information
- For a cross-country flight, which information does 91.103 specifically require in addition to weather and fuel?
- The memory aid ARROW lists the documents that must be aboard an aircraft. What does the second "R" represent?
- Within what period must an aircraft have had an annual inspection to be airworthy?
- When is a 100-hour inspection required?
- Who is responsible for determining that an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
- With no MEL, a non-required instrument is inoperative. Under 91.213, what must be done before flight?
- What kind of information does a NOTAM provide?
- Which condition increases the takeoff distance required?
- For a day VFR flight, what is the minimum fuel reserve beyond the first point of intended landing?
- For a night VFR flight, what is the minimum fuel reserve beyond the first point of intended landing?
- What must the pilot in command brief passengers on before takeoff?
- Preflight weather planning most directly supports which decision?
Knowledge-Test Final Preparation
- What is the minimum passing score on the private pilot airplane knowledge test?
- How many questions are on the private pilot airplane knowledge test?
- When a question references a sectional excerpt or performance chart, where does the candidate find it?
- Because there is no penalty for a wrong answer, what should a candidate do with a question they cannot resolve?
- Why is it important to notice words like "except" or "not" in a question stem?
- Why is studying by ACS knowledge area a sound preparation strategy?
- What is an effective way to use the software’s "mark for review" feature?
- For roughly how long is a passing knowledge test report generally valid for use toward the practical test?
- What does passing the knowledge test by itself allow a candidate to do?
- What happens with the ACS codes for questions a candidate missed on the knowledge test?
- What must a candidate obtain before retaking a failed knowledge test?
Oral-Exam and Scenario Review
- What is the primary purpose of the oral portion of the practical test?
- What best describes scenario-based questioning during the oral?
- The examiner asks about the VFR fuel reserve for a specific planned flight. The strongest answer does what?
- The PAVE risk-management checklist groups risk into which categories?
- The IMSAFE checklist is primarily used to assess what?
- During the cross-country walk-through, the examiner says the destination weather is deteriorating. What is the expected response?
- When answering an emergency question in the oral, what should the applicant emphasize first?
- During the oral, may the applicant use references such as the flight manual and regulations?
- What is the best response when an applicant genuinely does not know an answer during the oral?
- Where would a pilot best find aircraft-specific limitations and procedures?
- Which is an effective way to prepare for the oral portion?
Next Steps in Flight Training
- What are the two portions of the private pilot practical test?
- To carry passengers by day, what recent experience does 61.57 require?
- How often must a pilot complete a flight review to act as pilot in command?
- What is the difference between being current and being proficient?
- Regarding compensation, what may a private pilot generally do?
- What capability does an instrument rating add?
- A high-performance endorsement is required for an airplane with what characteristic?
- Which combination of features defines a complex airplane requiring an endorsement?
- What is a sound way for a new certificate holder to build experience?
- What are personal minimums?
- How can participation in the FAA WINGS program benefit a certificated pilot?
Supplemental original questions
- ATC instructs: "Cessna 9AB, hold short runway 27." What is the correct readback?
- What transponder code indicates a hijacking?
- When should a pilot use "wilco" instead of "roger"?
- What does a steady green light gun signal mean to an aircraft on the ground?
- What is the correct self-announce format at a non-towered airport on CTAF?
- When should a pilot contact ground control instead of tower?
- What does "cleared for the option" mean?
- What is the emergency frequency?
- Which of the following are required readback items per AIM and ATC?
- When can ATC use an abbreviated callsign for your aircraft?
- Why should pilots use "say again" instead of "repeat" when requesting a retransmission?
- When must a pilot use their full callsign (not abbreviated)?
- What does "unable" mean in aviation communication, and when should a pilot use it?
- What does "line up and wait" mean?
- What does transponder code 7700 indicate?
- What does transponder code 7600 indicate?
- How should a pilot read back "Runway 27 Left"?
- When should a pilot read back the altimeter setting provided by ATC?
- What words do "affirmative" and "negative" replace in aviation communications?
- What is a good format for an initial inbound call to a towered airport?
Supplemental · I — Preflight Preparation
- Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance the most?
- If an airplane's gross weight is increased, the takeoff speed will
- An aircraft is loaded such that the center of gravity is forward of the forward CG limit. The most likely effect on flight characteristics is
- Per 14 CFR 91.205(c), required equipment for night VFR flight in a powered aircraft includes (in addition to the day VFR list)
- On a hot summer afternoon at a high-elevation airport, takeoff and climb performance will be
- For VFR cross-country planning, the recommended fuel reserves per 14 CFR 91.151 are
- ADS-B (Automatic Dependent Surveillance — Broadcast) Out is required for VFR aircraft operating in
- If you encounter STRUCTURAL ICING in flight, the immediate action should be to
- Night currency for carrying passengers requires (per 14 CFR 61.57(b)) within the previous 90 days
- What is the FAA-recommended PERSONAL minimum for SUPPLEMENTAL OXYGEN at night?
- Logging requirements per 14 CFR 61.51 — the PIC's logbook entry for a flight must include
- After a flight where an instrument or system malfunction occurred (e.g., suction gauge low, heading indicator wandering), the pilot should
- Wind shear during approach is most often associated with
- Class B airspace generally surrounds the busiest airports in the US (e.g., Atlanta, JFK, LAX). To enter Class B, a VFR pilot needs
- Compared to day flight, the FUEL RESERVE requirement at night per 14 CFR 91.151 is
- If the airplane's CENTER OF GRAVITY is at the AFT limit, what flight characteristic should the pilot expect?
- When a CG outside the limits is loaded for takeoff, the pilot may legally
- How many night TAKEOFFS AND LANDINGS are required to act as PIC carrying passengers at night?
- FUEL RESERVES required for night VFR per 14 CFR 91.151(a)(2)
- The AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE LOG entry for a flight where an instrument was discovered inoperative on landing should
Supplemental · IV — Takeoffs, Landings, and Go-Arounds
- What is the effect of a tailwind on takeoff and landing performance?
- During a soft-field takeoff, the pilot should
- On a short-field landing, after touchdown the pilot should
- During a go-around from a low approach, the correct sequence is
- A forward slip to a landing is used primarily to
- On final approach, you realize you cannot make the runway. The CORRECT decision is to
- During a CROSSWIND landing approach, the wing-low (sideslip) method requires
- Maximum demonstrated crosswind component for an aircraft is
- During landing flare, if you land with the airplane DRIFTING (sideways across the runway), the most likely consequence is
- During a takeoff in a quartering crosswind, the pilot's INITIAL aileron input should be
- When you're low on the glide path on final, the proper correction is to
- A 'balked landing' refers to
- Best ANGLE of climb (Vx) is used to
- When transitioning from Vx (obstacle climb) to Vy (best rate climb) after clearing the obstacle, the pilot should
- When taking off on a SHORT FIELD with an obstacle at the end of the runway, the proper technique is
- On a short, soft field with an obstacle, you must perform
- After takeoff, FLAPS should typically be retracted
Supplemental · V — Performance and Ground Reference Maneuvers
- While performing turns around a point in a steady wind, to maintain a constant radius the pilot should
- During a rectangular course flown clockwise with a north wind, on the eastbound leg you should crab
- While flying a rectangular course at 800 ft AGL with a constant 15-knot wind from the north, the GROUND TRACK distortion (compared to the airplane's heading) is greatest on the
- S-turns across a road in a steady crosswind require the steepest bank angle when the airplane is
- During a steep turn (45° or greater bank) at constant altitude, the load factor at 60° bank is
- While performing turns around a point (a single fixed reference on the ground) in a steady south wind, what bank angle should you start with as you begin the turn flying directly EAST (so the wind is on your right)?
- During a steep turn, if the airplane begins to descend, the FIRST corrective action should be to
- The recommended ENTRY altitude for ground reference maneuvers (rectangular course, S-turns, turns around a point) is
- While doing a rectangular course, you notice you're consistently CLOSER to the road on the upwind leg than on the downwind leg (instead of equidistant). The error is that you are
- True airspeed (TAS) compared to indicated airspeed (IAS) at altitude is generally
- A 60° bank steep turn at 90 KIAS in a typical training airplane will cause the stall speed to
- During an S-turn, if you find that one half of the S has a tighter radius than the other half, the most likely cause is
- ACS standards for steep turns at the Private Pilot level require maintaining altitude within
- The OVERBANKING TENDENCY in a steep turn is caused by
- Density altitude is BEST defined as
- In a steep turn, the airplane's TURN RADIUS is determined by
- An airplane's RATE OF TURN at constant bank angle changes with airspeed how?
- An airplane in a 60-degree banked level turn experiences a load factor of approximately 2.0 G. To maintain altitude in this turn, lift must equal
- To minimize ALTITUDE LOSS during a steep turn entry, the pilot should
- During turns around a point in a steady 20-knot north wind, the airplane requires the STEEPEST bank when its momentary heading is
- A rectangular course is flown at 1,000 ft AGL with a wind from 270° at 20 kts. On the DOWNWIND leg (heading 090°), the pilot should
- PIVOTAL ALTITUDE for an eights-on-pylons maneuver is computed as
- When performing CLEARING TURNS prior to maneuvering, the standard practice is
- If a 60° banked turn at 100 KIAS is held for too long without sufficient power, the most likely outcome is
- Approaching ROLLOUT from a 360° steep turn, the pilot should begin reducing bank approximately
Supplemental · VII — Slow Flight, Stalls, and Spins
- An airplane in slow flight is operating
- A stall occurs when the wing's
- The first action in any stall recovery is to
- How does load factor (G-loading) in a coordinated turn affect stall speed?
- A spin entry typically requires
- Which condition is most likely to result in a power-on (departure) stall?
- A power-on stall during slow flight is most likely if the pilot
- When recovering from a fully developed spin in most general aviation airplanes, the FAA-recommended spin recovery procedure (PARE) is
- An accelerated stall typically occurs
- Stall warning systems in most light GA aircraft are designed to activate at approximately
- During slow flight maneuvering, the back side of the power curve refers to
- The most dangerous stall scenario for low-time pilots is the
- When entering slow flight, the proper sequence in most trainers is
- In a power-off stall (approach configuration), the recovery should be characterized by
- During a turn at slow flight airspeed (just above Vs), the airplane stalls earlier (at higher airspeed) than when wings level because
- Which RUDDER input prevents a stall from progressing to a SPIN?
- Use of opposite AILERON to lift a dropping wing during a stall is dangerous because
- When the elevator stick / yoke is pulled aft progressively at low airspeed, the wing's AoA
- What is meant by 'spin awareness' as required by Part 61 for the Private Pilot certificate?
- If you experience a SECONDARY STALL during recovery from a primary stall, the cause is
Supplemental · VIII — Basic Instrument Maneuvers
- When transitioning to instrument flight in IMC after losing outside visual reference, the first instrument a VFR-only pilot should fixate on is
- During recovery from an unusual nose-high attitude by reference to instruments, the standard recovery is to
- During recovery from an unusual nose-low attitude by reference to instruments, the standard sequence is
- While turning by reference to instruments, the rate of turn shown on a standard rate turn indicator ("2-minute turn") is
- In a constant-airspeed climb by reference to instruments, the primary instrument for pitch is
- What is the correct response to spatial disorientation in IMC?
- A 'graveyard spiral' begins when
- Heading indicator (DG / HSI) precession means
- If the vacuum system fails and you lose the attitude indicator and heading indicator, what instruments remain for IMC flight?
- The 'leans' is a vestibular illusion that occurs when
- When using the magnetic compass in flight, the most accurate heading reading occurs when
- If a Private Pilot encounters unintentional IMC during a VFR flight, the recommended action is to
- On the attitude indicator, when the small airplane (representing your aircraft) shows the wings tilted 30° to the LEFT relative to the artificial horizon, the airplane is in a
- The PRIMARY pitch instrument for level flight at constant airspeed is
- The turn coordinator differs from the older turn-and-slip indicator in that the turn coordinator
- For a Private Pilot, the FAA-required minimum hours of instrument flight training under 14 CFR 61.109(a)(3) is
- When recovering from an unusual attitude, the PRIMARY instrument the pilot should reference is
- If the attitude indicator (AI) gyro suddenly shows wild attitude swings unrelated to actual aircraft motion ("tumbling"), the most likely cause is
Supplemental · XI — Night Operations
- How long does it typically take for the eyes to fully dark-adapt for night flight?
- What technique improves your ability to see dim objects (like terrain or other aircraft) at night?
- A common visual illusion at night when approaching an upsloping runway is that the pilot perceives
- In FAA terminology, 'NIGHT' is defined for purposes of position lights and night currency as
- The most common night-flight VISUAL ILLUSION is
- When flying at night over unfamiliar terrain, the recommended cruising altitude is
- At night, AUTOKINESIS (the illusion that a single steady light appears to move) can cause
- Night flight CRUISE altitude over featureless terrain (e.g., ocean, dark countryside) should be
- A pilot enters a SOMATOGRAVIC ILLUSION on a night takeoff. Symptoms typically include
- A pilot's NIGHT VISION is impaired primarily by
- A 'BLACK HOLE' approach is most dangerous because
Supplemental · III — Airport & Seaplane Base Operations
- An aircraft displays a steady RED light on its left side and a steady GREEN light on its right side. You see only the red light approaching from your right. The other aircraft is
- After landing and clearing the runway, the standard sequence at a towered field is
- Before crossing any runway hold-short line, the PIC at a TOWERED airport must have
- On a sectional chart, a 700-foot AGL Class E floor is depicted by a
- On a VFR sectional chart, a thin DASHED MAGENTA line surrounding a non-towered airport indicates
- When approaching a runway with VASI (Visual Approach Slope Indicator) at night, you see RED OVER WHITE lights. This means
- An airport rotating beacon (alternating WHITE-GREEN flash) operating during DAYTIME indicates
- After landing at a non-towered airport, the proper CTAF procedure is to
- WAKE TURBULENCE from a heavy aircraft is most dangerous when
- A pilot at a non-towered airport hears another aircraft self-announce 'Bedford traffic, Cessna 1234A, downwind for runway 24.' If you are also in the pattern for runway 24, you should
- A 'WIND-T' or 'TETRAHEDRON' on the airport indicates
- What is the difference between 'ATC instruction' and 'ATC advisory'?
- If you receive an ATC instruction you cannot safely comply with, the correct phrasing is
- An ILS (Instrument Landing System) Critical Area protected during low visibility ("CAT II/III ops") is
- An airport beacon flashing at night with WHITE-YELLOW alternating identifies the airport as
- When approaching a runway at night equipped with PAPI showing FOUR WHITE lights, the airplane is
- After landing at a tower-controlled field, the pilot should switch to ground frequency
Supplemental · XII — Postflight Procedures
- The minimum required postflight inspection of a piston-engine GA aircraft includes
- After parking at the FBO, the proper engine shutdown sequence (most piston aircraft) is
- After tying down for the night, you should
- After parking and shutdown, before exiting the airplane, the proper procedure is
- The POSTFLIGHT WALK-AROUND should specifically check for
- For airplanes equipped with retractable landing gear, the LANDING GEAR LEVER should be in what position when parked?
- After flight in HEAVY RAIN or IMC conditions, the postflight inspection should add
Supplemental · IX — Emergency Operations
- After an engine failure in cruise, the FIRST action a Private Pilot should take is
- During flight, the pilot smells an electrical/burning odor and notices smoke from the panel. The appropriate immediate action is to
- An ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitter) installed in a US-registered aircraft must be inspected within
- An emergency descent (e.g., cabin smoke or cabin depressurization at altitude) is best executed by
- Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning during flight typically presents as
- ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitter) inspection during preflight should verify
- After a successful engine restart following an in-flight failure, the prudent PIC action is to
- A complete electrical failure (alternator AND battery exhausted) during VFR day flight means you lose
- If two-way radio communications are lost in VFR conditions, the recommended pilot action is to
- Which transponder code declares a general emergency?
- If carbon monoxide is suspected in the cabin, the IMMEDIATE pilot action is to
- After an off-airport forced landing, the PIC's first priority once the airplane is stopped is to
- Per 49 CFR 830 (NTSB), the PIC must immediately notify the NTSB of which event?
- If the flight encountered any of the following events, you must report them to the NTSB. Which is NOT immediate-notification per 49 CFR 830.5?
- If the engine begins running rough but doesn't fail, the FIRST troubleshooting steps in cruise are
- Which event during flight requires you to file a NASA ASRS (Aviation Safety Reporting System) report?
- If you experience an ENGINE FAILURE at night, the BEST initial action is to
Supplemental · II — Preflight Procedures
- When sumping fuel during preflight, the pilot finds clear water droplets settled at the bottom of the sample. The correct action is to
- Carburetor heat applied during the run-up should produce
- Per 14 CFR 91.103, before beginning a flight, a pilot in command must become familiar with
- When checking magnetos during the engine run-up, you observe an RPM drop of 200 RPM on the LEFT magneto and 50 RPM on the RIGHT magneto. The maximum allowable drop in the POH is 175 RPM with no more than 50 RPM differential between magnetos. The correct action is to
- During the pre-takeoff brief, the most important item to discuss with passengers is
- While taxiing in a strong, gusty quartering tailwind from the LEFT REAR, the correct control position is
- During preflight, a pilot finds the static port partially obstructed by a wasp nest. If undiscovered and the pilot departs, which instruments will be affected?
- 100LL aviation gasoline has what color when properly grade-coded?
- A pilot finds the right wing tank fuel cap missing during preflight. The CORRECT response is to
- A pilot intends to fly the same aircraft she flew yesterday. The aircraft has not been moved or fueled since. Per regulation and best practice, the pilot should
- During engine start in cold weather, the proper technique includes
- The proper procedure when starting an engine that has been suspected of flooding is
- Tire condition during preflight should be checked for
- Carburetor ice is most likely to form in
- If you suspect carb ice based on RPM drop in cruise, the correct action is to
- Aircraft anti-collision lights (typically red BEACON and/or white STROBES) must be operating
- If you notice a fluid drip from the cowl after engine shutdown, you should
- If you discover NEW damage on the airplane during postflight that wasn't there preflight (rock chip on prop blade, dent in cowl, broken antenna), the airworthiness call is
- A FROST-COVERED wing exhibits which characteristic?
- Night PREFLIGHT inspection should include extra attention to
- If a discrepancy is discovered during postflight that affects airworthiness, the pilot must
Supplemental · VI — Navigation
- Magnetic deviation refers to compass error caused by
- On a sectional chart, the symbol for a non-towered airport with fuel and other services available is
- When using the magnetic compass in NORTHERN HEMISPHERE flying, which two errors must be considered?
- When tracking inbound to a VOR with the OBS set to 360° and the CDI showing the needle deflected to the right, the airplane is
- GPS RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) is a function that
- When LOST and unable to determine position, the standard procedure ("the 5 C's") is
- On a sectional chart, a small white CIRCLE inside the airport symbol indicates
- If your VOR receiver displays a TO/FROM flag swinging back and forth, you are most likely
- WAAS (Wide Area Augmentation System) GPS is used in aviation primarily to
These are original study questions written for this course — representative of FAA knowledge-test topics, not actual current FAA exam questions.